Add Free Physical Therapy Exam Questions Archive - pT Final Exam

Free Physical Therapy Exam Questions Archive - pT Final Exam.-.md

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+<br>A 35 year old patient with a complete T5 spinal cord injury is working on supine to sit transfers on the mat table when he suddenly appears flushed and complains of his heart pounding. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg and he has a pounding headache. What is the most appropriate INITIAL course of action? 1. Lay the patient supine and notify the patient’s physician. 2. Sit the patient up and notify the patient’s physician. 3. Allow the patient to rest longer between sets of activity. 4. Initiate core [strengthening](https://www.paramuspost.com/search.php?query=strengthening&type=all&mode=search&results=25) exercises to maintain intraabdominal pressure. 1. This is not correct because putting the patient in supine will exacerbate the autonomic dysreflexia. This is the correct answer. By sitting the patient up, you decrease the blood pressure in the head and mitigate the effects of the dysreflexia. 2. This is incorrect considering that autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition.<br>
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+<br>A 21 year old female patient presents with neck pain and stiffness that has gradually worsened over the last two weeks. Upon examination, the patient is noted to have left-sided pain with left side bending with left rotation, and reports pain at the left C5-6 junction. Hypomobility is also noted with right side-gliding of C6. Which of the following techniques will be most appropriate to decrease pain? 1. Closing technique for the mid-thoracic spine. 3. Gapping manipulation in flexion for C5-C6. 1. The cervical spine "closes" with side-bending and ipsilateral rotation (i.e. "closed" with left SB and left rot.). Manipulating the thoracic spine for neck pain is a common treatment strategy, however the specific issues noted in the question require more than just a nonspecific t-spine manip. This is the correct answer. The hypomobility is noted at C6 with right side-gliding and pain with left SB and rotation. 2. This would be the treatment if the pain were on the right with the left SB and rotation.<br>
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+<br>Difficulty "opening" the right C5-6 facet joint. A 22 year old female presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of knee pain following a twisting injury while playing soccer 5 days ago. The patient’s knee is swollen significantly and she is unable to jump or run. What special test would be the MOST appropriate to diagnose the injury? This is the most correct answer. The overwhelming majority of injuries to female soccer players is to the ACL, especially with a running/twisting injury and swelling. In addition, the Lachman’s test is validated well by multiple studies. 1. PCL’s are an issue with twisting injuries, but not to the extent that ACL’s are. 2. Active Lachman’s test has not had near the validation that the plain-vanilla Lachman’s test has. 3. This assesses for a PCL tear, not ACL tear. A geriatric patient with a history of recent falls is receiving physical therapy for general conditioning.<br>
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+<br>He was recently released from the hospital for pneumonia, and  [GlucoLife Online](https://www.etymologiewebsite.nl/wiki/Gebruiker:RichelleCruce) although he was cleared for exercise, he is still having some dyspnea with activity. Based on his presentation, which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate to start with in order to improve his cardiovascular fitness? 1. The patient was cleared for exercise, and it would be OK to start with light activity to the patient’s tolerance. This is the correct answer. It would be safe to start with gentle activity, but avoid moderate activities until some level of baseline fitness is achieved. 2. This would be appropriate to build towards, but is not likely going to be tolerated early on. The patient should start with light exercise. 3. This patient should avoid HIIT until his fitness is significantly improved and he is no longer having symptoms of pneumonia. A patient complains of weakness in the right hip while she is ambulating. Upon examination,  [GlucoLife Online](https://haderslevwiki.dk/index.php/Bruger:RaphaelRobbins) you notice that the patient has a significant drop of the left hip while in midstance on the right leg.<br>
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+<br>What is the MOST appropriate treatment for this impairment? 1. Standing hip abduction of the left leg. 2. Standing hip abduction of the right leg. 3. Standing flexion of the left leg. 4. Standing flexion of the right leg. This is the most correct answer. The patient is demonstrating a Trendeleburg gait with the weakness on the right hip abductors. The trick (and this is very true in the clincal world) is that while standing on the involved hip and abducting the opposite, you are loading the right hip (closed-chain) more than the left hip (open chain). Thus you are MORE effective at strengthening the right hip abductors by using the closed chain exercise. 1. Good, but this open chain activity for the right hip abductors is not as appropriate as a closed-chain activity. 2. Not directly related to the impairment. A patient presents to the clinic with signs of lethargy and mild dizziness. The patient’s resting [GlucoLife blood glucose support](http://lieblingsmetropole.de/index.php?title=Benutzer:LakeishaStump) pressure is 100/70 mmHg.<br>